Dividend-Based Valuation Measure for Size-Based Portfolios

Introduction: We recomputed the new dividend-based valuation measure discussed in the previous posts for the Fama-French size-based portfolios (cap-weighted, annual returns, 1928-2025) taken from their data library. We consider total returns and price returns. They are arithmetic but they can be converted into geometric. And from there, one can compute dividends paid. The code and data are available on GitHub. We updated the code, the previous version contained mistakes.

Dividend-Based New Valuation Measure: We consider the difference between total log returns and log dividend growth and denote it by  \Delta(t). Then we can fit the multiple linear regression

 \Delta(t) = a - b(\Delta(1) + \ldots + \Delta(t-1)) + c(t-1) + \varepsilon(t).

We analyze the residuals  \varepsilon(t).

Results for Ten Deciles: Mostly (except the most small stocks), the residuals are IID (both the ACF of original values and the ACF of absolute values correspond to white noise). But usually, except for the largest portfolios, they are not Gaussian. Always, all coefficients  a, b, c, are significantly different from zero. The trend for large or medium stocks, which can be computed as  b/c is around 5%. This implies that this seems to be a fundamental constant. In fact, this is the same as for the S&P. See the discussion in this blog post. In the table below, we see regular behavior (residuals IID) for Deciles 4 and 6-10 but IID Gaussian for Deciles 7-10. The random walk hypothesis (when  b = 0 ) is always strongly rejected, so there is mean reversion. For the bottom decile, we could not even compute it because of technical issues.

In the table below, SW p and JB p stand for Shapiro-Wilk and Jarque-Bera normality tests p-values, LB-orig and LB-abs stand for the p-values of the Ljung-Box test for white noise for 5 lags if we take original and absolute values of residuals;  R^2 is for the regression which fits the autoregression with linear trend; and Trend stands, of course, for this linear trend; finally, RW p stands for the p-value for the T-test if the coefficient  b = 0 which would correspond to the random walk with drift. As discussed before, we always reject this hypothesis.

DecileSW pJB pLB-origLB-absR squaredRW pTrend
Smallest 10%N/AN/AN/AN/AN/AN/AN/A
Decile 20.00%0.00%0.11%0.04%22.5%0.0%3.7%
Decile 30.00%0.00%93%0.1%9.4%0.2%4.5%
Decile 416%2.4%96%44%7%1%4.7%
Decile 50.82%0.01%1.73%5%6.7%1.4%4.8%
Decile 65.4%0.02%36%44%7.4%0.8%4.91%
Decile 74.2%15%70%65%8.9%0.4%4.96%
Decile 849%51%95%54%7.6%0.7%5.06%
Decile 928%18%68%69%8.8%0.4%4.99%
Largest 10%86%59%46%73%6.4%1.2%4.94%

Three Size-Based Portfolios: We also did analysis for lower 30%, middle 40%, largest 30%, and the five quintiles, but we do not present them in this table. Let us instead present ACF plots for original and absolute values, and the valuation measure for these.

We see that the valuation measure looks very different for low 30% stocks vs mid 40% and high 30% stocks. We see a huge bubble in small stocks during the Great Depression but there is not much bubble during the late 1990s. For contrast, the medium stocks show both bubbles, as well as the bubble in the 1960s. And the large stocks show especially large bubble during the dotcom era. But the autocorrelation function plots are consistent with independent identically distributed assumption.

Total Returns vs Valuation Measure: Let us regress next year’s total log returns  Q(t) vs the new valuation measure  H(t-1): We do this for top 30% (large stocks)/middle 40% (middle stocks)/bottom 30% (small stocks). And we analyze residuals  \delta(t). See the following formula:

 Q(t) = \alpha - \beta H(t-1) + \delta(t)

See below the autocorrelation function plots for  \delta(t) and for  |\delta(t)|. We see that mostly the problems are with absolute values. This suggests the use of stochastic volatility, maybe taken from the S&P data, or computed directly from daily returns, see below.

But what about  \alpha? Or  \beta? Here,  \alpha = 0.71 and  \beta = 0.2 for large stocks,  \alpha = 0.48 and  \beta = 0.12 for middle stocks, and  \alpha = 0.39 and  \beta = 0.09 for small stocks. Why? I have no idea.

Judging by the Shapiro-Wilk normality test, we always reject normality.

Conclusion: Imagine the possibilities: Now given the price and total returns, we can compute the entire new valuation measure and its influence upon the next year’s total returns. But we did not include annual volatility. But maybe we should! Such volatility is also available from the Kenneth French’s data library. Indeed, we can compute it from daily returns. This opens rich possibilities for further analysis.

See the next blog post for analysis of value-based portfolios.

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  1. Dividend-Based Valuation Measure for Value-Based Portfolios – My Finance

    […] Continuing the previous post, we consider the analysis for the value-based portfolios. We take total and price arithmetic annual […]

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